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SU9.1-3 | Surgical Investigations and Cancer Detection — Practice Quiz

Practice 11 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 SU9.1 1 pt

A surgeon is deciding whether to order an investigation in a patient with suspected acute appendicitis. Which single statement best captures the correct principle for ordering an investigation in a surgical patient?

A An investigation should be ordered routinely on every admission to avoid missing pathology
B An investigation is justified only when its result could change management
C The most sensitive available test should always be ordered first regardless of cost or risk
D Investigations replace the need for an estimate of pretest probability from history and examination

Correct. An investigation is justified only when its result could change what you do — confirm or exclude a diagnosis, stage disease, or alter the operative plan. There is no place for ordering a test 'just to check'.

Order a test only if a positive or negative result would change what you do for the patient.

The clinical indication for any investigation is a specific, answerable clinical question. A test is worth ordering only when its result could change management.

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Q2 SU9.1 1 pt

A screening test for a surgical condition has a sensitivity of 95%. What does this 95% figure mean?

A 95% of people who test positive truly have the disease
B 95% of people WITH the disease are correctly identified as positive by the test
C 95% of people WITHOUT the disease are correctly identified as negative
D The test is positive in 95% of the whole population tested

Correct. Sensitivity is the proportion of people WITH the disease who test positive. A highly sensitive test, when negative, is good for ruling a disease OUT (SnNout).

Sensitivity = detection of disease when present; a very sensitive test that is negative helps rule disease OUT.

Sensitivity = true positives / all people with the disease. The proportion of test-positives who truly have the disease is the positive predictive value, not sensitivity.

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Q3 SU9.1 1 pt

Specificity is the proportion of people WITHOUT the disease who are correctly identified as test-negative. Clinically, a test with very high specificity is most useful in which situation?

A When negative, to confidently rule the disease OUT
B When positive, to confidently rule the disease IN
C To screen a large asymptomatic population for early disease
D To estimate the pretest probability before examination

Correct. A highly specific test rarely gives false positives, so when it is positive it helps rule the disease IN (SpPin).

SpPin — a Specific test, when Positive, rules disease IN.

High specificity means few false positives, so a positive result rules the disease IN (SpPin). Ruling OUT on a negative result is the property of a sensitive test.

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Q4 SU9.1 1 pt

The same diagnostic test is applied first in a high-prevalence surgical clinic and then in a low-prevalence screening setting. As prevalence (pretest probability) falls, what happens to the positive predictive value (PPV) of a positive result?

A PPV rises because the test is more accurate in healthy people
B PPV falls because more of the positives are false positives
C PPV is unchanged because it depends only on sensitivity and specificity
D PPV becomes equal to the specificity of the test

Correct. PPV depends on prevalence. In a low-prevalence population most positives are false positives, so PPV falls — a key reason screening tests need very high specificity.

PPV and NPV are prevalence-dependent; sensitivity and specificity are not.

Sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic to the test, but PPV and NPV depend on prevalence. As prevalence falls, a larger share of positives are false positives, so PPV falls.

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Q5 SU9.1 1 pt

A 62-year-old man with painless obstructive jaundice and weight loss has a serum CA 19-9 measured. Which statement about tumour markers in this setting is correct?

A Tumour markers should be used to screen the asymptomatic population for pancreatic cancer
B A raised CA 19-9 can result from benign biliary obstruction, so it is not diagnostic on its own
C A normal CEA reliably excludes colorectal cancer
D Tumour markers are most valuable as the first-line screening tool for solid cancers

Correct. Tumour markers are for monitoring (and supporting diagnosis in context), not screening. CA 19-9 rises in benign biliary obstruction, and a normal CEA does not exclude colorectal cancer.

Tumour markers monitor known disease — they neither screen nor exclude cancer.

Tumour markers are for monitoring, not screening. CA 19-9 can be raised by benign biliary obstruction; a normal CEA does not exclude colorectal cancer.

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Q6 SU9.2 1 pt

Early detection improves curability for most solid cancers because of which single most important factor?

A Smaller tumours are easier for the laboratory to detect on tumour markers
B Stage at diagnosis is the strongest determinant of curability for most solid cancers
C Early cancers never metastasise regardless of biology
D Screening guarantees that every cancer detected is curable

Correct. For the great majority of solid cancers, stage at diagnosis is the strongest determinant of curability — a small tumour confined to its organ of origin is far more often curable.

Stage at diagnosis drives curability — the rationale for finding cancer early.

The clinical value of early detection rests on the robust fact that stage at diagnosis is the strongest determinant of curability for most solid cancers.

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Q7 SU9.2 1 pt

Early detection of carcinoma is biologically possible because most carcinomas progress through a recognisable sequence. Which sequence correctly describes this progression and the point of curative opportunity?

A Invasive carcinoma to dysplasia to normal epithelium — detection is possible only after metastasis
B Normal epithelium to dysplasia to carcinoma-in-situ to invasive carcinoma — a window exists before invasion
C Normal epithelium directly to metastatic disease with no intermediate stage
D Carcinoma-in-situ to dysplasia to normal epithelium as the tumour regresses

Correct. Most carcinomas evolve normal epithelium → dysplasia → carcinoma-in-situ (confined above the basement membrane) → invasive carcinoma. This slow natural history creates the detection window.

Dysplasia → carcinoma-in-situ → invasion: the pre-invasive window is when detection cures.

The sequence is normal epithelium → dysplasia → carcinoma-in-situ → invasive carcinoma. Carcinoma-in-situ is still confined above the basement membrane, which is why early detection can be curative.

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Q8 SU9.2 1 pt

A patient presents with rectal bleeding. According to the principle distinguishing screening from early diagnosis, what is the correct action?

A Enrol the patient in a routine population screening programme
B Arrange a prompt diagnostic work-up because the patient is symptomatic
C Reassure and re-test only at the next scheduled screening round
D Order a tumour marker as the definitive screening test

Correct. Screening is for the WELL (asymptomatic); a symptomatic patient (rectal bleeding) needs a prompt diagnostic work-up, not a screening test.

Symptomatic = diagnose promptly; asymptomatic well population = screen.

Never blur screening and early diagnosis. Screening is for asymptomatic people; a symptom such as rectal bleeding mandates a prompt diagnostic work-up.

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Q9 SU9.2 1 pt

When deciding whether a cancer is worth screening for, the Wilson-Jungner criteria are applied. Which of the following is a core requirement of these criteria?

A The condition must be rare so that few people need testing
B There must be a recognisable early/latent stage and an acceptable, effective treatment for it
C The screening test must be as expensive as possible to ensure quality
D Treatment of early disease should give the same outcome as treating late disease

Correct. Wilson-Jungner requires an important condition with a recognisable latent/early stage, a suitable acceptable test, and an accepted effective treatment whose early application improves outcome.

Screen only when there is a detectable early stage AND early treatment improves outcome.

Wilson-Jungner criteria require an important condition with a detectable early/latent stage and an accepted, effective treatment that works better when applied early. Rarity and high cost are not requirements.

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Q10 SU9.3 1 pt

A surgeon is about to break the news of a cancer diagnosis using the SPIKES protocol. What does the 'I' in SPIKES stand for?

A Investigations — ordering further tests before talking
B Invitation/Information — finding out how much the patient wants to know and what they already understand
C Intervention — proceeding directly to the treatment plan
D Isolation — speaking to the patient without any support person present

Correct. In SPIKES, S = Setting, P = Perception, I = Invitation (how much the patient wants to know), K = Knowledge, E = Emotions/empathy, S = Strategy/summary.

SPIKES: Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions, Strategy.

SPIKES: Setting, Perception, Invitation, Knowledge, Emotions (empathy), Strategy/Summary. The 'I' is the Invitation — eliciting how much the patient wishes to know.

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Q11 SU9.3 1 pt

During a consultation breaking the news of cancer, the patient becomes tearful immediately after hearing the diagnosis. According to good practice, what should the doctor do NEXT?

A Move quickly to outline the chemotherapy schedule while attention is high
B Acknowledge and respond to the emotion with empathy before moving to the plan
C Continue listing the staging investigations that are still pending
D End the consultation and provide all information later in a letter

Correct. Responding to emotion before moving to the plan is the most skipped yet most important step. A patient in shock cannot absorb a treatment schedule until the emotion is acknowledged.

Address emotion first; only then discuss the management plan.

The most important and most often skipped step is responding to EMOTION before the plan. A patient who has just heard 'cancer' cannot take in chemotherapy details until their emotion is addressed.

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