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SU26.{1,3-4} | Cardiothoracic Surgery — Practice Quiz

Practice 9 questions · Untimed · Unlimited attempts

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Q1 SU26.1 1 pt

A 62-year-old man with stable exertional angina is found on coronary angiography to have significant triple-vessel disease, including a tight stenosis of the proximal left anterior descending artery. Medical therapy has not controlled his symptoms. Which surgical procedure is the standard intervention to relieve his ischaemia?

A Coronary artery bypass grafting using the internal mammary artery and vein/radial conduits
B Mechanical mitral valve replacement
C Pericardiectomy
D Cardiac transplantation
E Closure of a patent ductus arteriosus

Correct. Fixed obstruction in ischaemic (coronary) disease is bypassed surgically by CABG; the left internal mammary artery to the LAD gives the best long-term patency, supplemented by vein or radial artery conduits.

CABG is the operation for ischaemic heart disease, especially left-main or triple-vessel disease; the LIMA-to-LAD graft is the cornerstone conduit.

Coronary (ischaemic) disease is treated by revascularisation. CABG bypasses the fixed obstruction; valve and transplant operations address different lesions.

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Q2 SU26.1 1 pt

A 35-year-old woman requires aortic valve replacement. After discussion she opts for a MECHANICAL prosthetic valve. Which statement about her subsequent management is correct?

A She will require lifelong oral anticoagulation with warfarin
B She needs no anticoagulation at any stage
C A short course of aspirin for six weeks is sufficient
D The valve will need routine replacement every 10 years
E Anticoagulation is required only if she develops atrial fibrillation

Correct. A mechanical valve is thrombogenic and mandates lifelong warfarin anticoagulation regardless of rhythm.

Mechanical valve = lifelong warfarin (durable but thrombogenic). Bioprosthetic valve = no long-term anticoagulation but limited durability — the trade-off that drives valve choice.

The single most important fact about a prosthetic valve is mechanical versus bioprosthetic: mechanical valves require lifelong warfarin; bioprosthetic valves generally do not but are less durable.

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Q3 SU26.1 1 pt

A 58-year-old man had a bioprosthetic (tissue) aortic valve implanted. Compared with a mechanical valve, the principal disadvantage of his bioprosthetic valve is that it:

A Has limited durability and may need re-replacement over time
B Requires lifelong warfarin anticoagulation
C Cannot be used in the aortic position
D Causes obligatory haemolysis
E Is contraindicated in patients over 50 years

Correct. Bioprosthetic valves spare the patient lifelong anticoagulation but degenerate structurally over years, so durability is their key limitation — often favoured in older patients or where anticoagulation is risky.

Bioprosthetic valves: avoid lifelong anticoagulation but wear out — chosen for older patients or those who cannot take warfarin.

The bioprosthetic trade-off is the reverse of the mechanical valve: no lifelong warfarin, but limited durability.

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Q4 SU26.1 1 pt

A newborn is found to have a continuous 'machinery' murmur and a persistent left-to-right shunt due to a patent ductus arteriosus. Into which broad category of congenital heart disease does an isolated PDA fall?

A Acyanotic congenital heart disease
B Cyanotic congenital heart disease
C Acquired valvular disease
D Ischaemic heart disease
E Cardiomyopathy

Correct. PDA, ASD and VSD are left-to-right shunts and therefore ACYANOTIC lesions; cyanosis appears later only if Eisenmenger physiology develops.

Acyanotic congenital lesions (PDA, ASD, VSD) shunt left-to-right; cyanotic lesions (e.g. TOF) shunt right-to-left.

PDA, ASD and VSD are left-to-right shunts = acyanotic. Tetralogy of Fallot is the classic cyanotic (right-to-left) lesion.

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Q5 SU26.1 1 pt

A 2-year-old child has cyanotic spells, a boot-shaped heart on chest X-ray, and is found to have a combination of ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis and right ventricular hypertrophy. This describes:

A Tetralogy of Fallot
B Isolated atrial septal defect
C Patent ductus arteriosus
D Isolated ventricular septal defect
E Coronary artery disease

Correct. The four components — VSD, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy — define Tetralogy of Fallot, the classic cyanotic congenital lesion.

Tetralogy of Fallot = VSD + overriding aorta + pulmonary stenosis + RV hypertrophy; the prototypical cyanotic congenital heart disease.

The tetrad of VSD, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis and RV hypertrophy is Tetralogy of Fallot — a cyanotic (right-to-left) lesion, unlike the acyanotic ASD/VSD/PDA.

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Q6 SU26.3 1 pt

A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigable ptosis, diplopia and proximal limb weakness. A contrast CT shows an ANTERIOR mediastinal mass. Which mediastinal tumour is most strongly associated with this clinical syndrome?

A Thymoma
B Neurogenic tumour
C Bronchogenic cyst
D Oesophageal duplication cyst
E Aortic aneurysm

Correct. An anterior mediastinal mass with myasthenia gravis points to a thymoma — one of the anterior compartment 'four T's' (thymoma, teratoma/germ-cell, thyroid, terrible lymphoma).

Anterior mediastinal masses = the four T's (Thymoma, Teratoma/germ-cell, Thyroid, Terrible lymphoma); thymoma links to myasthenia gravis.

Myasthenia gravis plus an anterior mediastinal mass is the classic thymoma association. Neurogenic tumours arise in the posterior compartment.

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Q7 SU26.3 1 pt

A 30-year-old man has a mass in the POSTERIOR mediastinum on CT. Based on compartment-predicts-pathology reasoning, which type of tumour is most characteristic of this compartment?

A Neurogenic tumour
B Thymoma
C Germ-cell teratoma
D Retrosternal thyroid
E Pericardial cyst

Correct. The posterior mediastinum contains the sympathetic chain and nerve roots, so neurogenic tumours are its characteristic masses — the compartment predicts the pathology.

Compartment-based reasoning: posterior mediastinum → neurogenic tumours; anterior → the four T's; middle → lymph nodes, bronchogenic/pericardial cysts.

The compartment predicts the pathology: posterior mediastinum (neural structures) → neurogenic tumours. Thymoma, teratoma and thyroid are anterior masses.

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Q8 SU26.4 1 pt

A 64-year-old heavy smoker has a CENTRAL lung tumour and develops hyponatraemia from inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Biopsy confirms small-cell lung cancer. What is the principal modality of treatment?

A Chemotherapy (with radiotherapy), not primary surgical resection
B Curative surgical lobectomy as first-line treatment
C Coronary artery bypass grafting
D Thymectomy
E Long-term anticoagulation alone

Correct. Small-cell lung cancer is typically central, frequently produces paraneoplastic syndromes (SIADH, ectopic ACTH) and is disseminated early — it is treated chemotherapeutically (with radiotherapy), almost never by primary surgery.

Two facts must be on the chart before any lung-cancer operation: histology (SCLC vs NSCLC) and stage. SCLC = chemotherapy; NSCLC = surgery if resectable.

SCLC is rarely an operation: it is central, paraneoplastic-prone and treated with chemotherapy (± radiotherapy). Surgery is reserved mainly for resectable NSCLC.

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Q9 SU26.4 1 pt

A 67-year-old smoker has an apical (superior sulcus) lung tumour and presents with ipsilateral ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis. This Pancoast tumour is causing which named syndrome by invading the sympathetic chain?

A Horner's syndrome
B Superior vena cava obstruction
C Cushing's syndrome
D Myasthenia gravis
E Raynaud's phenomenon

Correct. An apical Pancoast tumour invades the sympathetic chain, producing Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis), often with shoulder/arm pain from brachial plexus involvement.

Pancoast (superior sulcus) tumour → Horner's syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis) from sympathetic chain invasion.

A Pancoast (apical) tumour invading the sympathetic chain gives Horner's syndrome. SVC obstruction and ectopic-ACTH Cushing's are different paraneoplastic/compressive effects.

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