Page 12 of 14

SU22.1-6 | Thyroid and Parathyroid Surgery — Graded Quiz

Graded 8 questions · Untimed · 2 attempts

Click any question card to reveal the correct answer.

Q1 SU22.1 1 pt

A patient has a small midline neck swelling that moves both on swallowing and on protrusion of the tongue. Knowing the embryology of the thyroid, what is the most likely diagnosis?

A Colloid nodule of a thyroid lobe
B Thyroglossal cyst, related to the thyroid's descent along the thyroglossal duct from the foramen caecum
C Branchial cyst
D Submandibular gland tumour
E Carotid body tumour

Correct. The thyroid descends from the foramen caecum along the thyroglossal duct; a remnant produces a midline thyroglossal cyst that moves on swallowing and on tongue protrusion.

Thyroglossal cyst: midline, moves on swallowing AND tongue protrusion; arises from the thyroglossal duct (foramen caecum origin).

Movement on tongue protrusion (as well as swallowing) of a midline swelling is characteristic of a thyroglossal cyst, reflecting the thyroid's embryological descent.

Click to reveal answer

Q2 SU22.2 1 pt

Which statement about the aetiopathogenesis of simple (non-toxic) goitre is correct?

A It is always caused by autoimmune destruction of the gland
B Iodine deficiency leading to compensatory TSH-driven hyperplasia is a major cause, especially in endemic regions
C It is invariably malignant
D It results solely from excess iodine intake
E It never causes pressure symptoms regardless of size

Correct. Iodine deficiency reduces thyroid hormone output, raising TSH and driving compensatory hyperplasia (goitre); this is the classic cause of endemic goitre, and large goitres can cause pressure symptoms.

Endemic goitre: iodine deficiency → TSH-driven hyperplasia; large goitres cause pressure symptoms.

Iodine deficiency → low hormone → raised TSH → compensatory hyperplasia is the mechanism of endemic simple goitre. Large goitres may compress trachea/oesophagus.

Click to reveal answer

Q3 SU22.3 1 pt

A solitary thyroid nodule is found in a patient whose serum TSH is SUPPRESSED. Which investigation is most appropriate to perform first, and why?

A Fine-needle aspiration cytology, because all nodules need cytology first
B Radionuclide (technetium/iodine) scan, to identify a hot (autonomously functioning) nodule which is rarely malignant
C Immediate total thyroidectomy
D CT scan of the chest
E No further investigation is needed

Correct. A suppressed TSH suggests an autonomously functioning nodule; a radionuclide scan identifies a hot nodule (rarely malignant) and is therefore done first in this specific situation.

Suppressed TSH → radionuclide scan first; normal/raised TSH → ultrasound + FNAC.

Only a SUPPRESSED TSH justifies a radionuclide scan first (to find a hot nodule). With a normal/raised TSH, proceed straight to ultrasound and FNAC.

Click to reveal answer

Q4 SU22.4 1 pt

When an FNAC result is reported, which classification system is used to stratify the risk of malignancy of a thyroid nodule and guide management?

A The Bethesda system for reporting thyroid cytopathology
B The Gleason grading system
C The Dukes classification
D The Breslow thickness
E The Child–Pugh score

Correct. The Bethesda system categorises thyroid FNAC results into risk tiers (e.g. benign, follicular neoplasm, suspicious, malignant) that guide whether to observe, repeat, operate diagnostically, or proceed to cancer surgery.

Thyroid FNAC → Bethesda categories drive management decisions.

Thyroid FNAC is reported using the Bethesda system. Gleason is for prostate, Dukes for colorectal, Breslow for melanoma, Child–Pugh for liver disease.

Click to reveal answer

Q5 SU22.4 1 pt

Which statement correctly contrasts the behaviour of papillary and follicular thyroid carcinoma?

A Both spread predominantly by the bloodstream and are diagnosed on FNAC
B Papillary spreads chiefly via lymphatics and can be suggested on FNAC, whereas follicular spreads haematogenously and needs histology to confirm malignancy
C Papillary spreads haematogenously while follicular spreads via lymphatics
D Both are diagnosed only by calcitonin assay
E Neither responds to radioiodine therapy

Correct. Papillary carcinoma spreads mainly via lymphatics (cervical nodes) and is suggested by FNAC; follicular carcinoma spreads haematogenously (bone, lung) and requires histology (capsular/vascular invasion) for diagnosis. Both, being differentiated, take up radioiodine.

Papillary: lymphatic, psammoma bodies. Follicular: haematogenous, needs histology. Both differentiated → radioiodine.

Papillary = lymphatic spread, FNAC-suggestive; follicular = haematogenous spread, histology-dependent. Both differentiated cancers respond to radioiodine.

Click to reveal answer

Q6 SU22.4 1 pt

Two days after total thyroidectomy a patient develops perioral tingling, paraesthesiae in the fingers, and a positive Chvostek's sign. What is the most likely cause?

A Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
B Hypocalcaemia due to injury to or devascularisation of the parathyroid glands (hypoparathyroidism)
C Thyroid storm
D External laryngeal nerve injury
E Wound haematoma

Correct. Perioral and digital paraesthesiae with a positive Chvostek's sign after total thyroidectomy indicate hypocalcaemia from parathyroid injury/devascularisation (hypoparathyroidism).

Key thyroidectomy complications: recurrent laryngeal nerve injury (voice) and hypoparathyroidism (hypocalcaemia, Chvostek/Trousseau).

Post-thyroidectomy tetany/paraesthesiae with Chvostek's sign reflect hypocalcaemia from parathyroid damage. Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury causes hoarse voice/airway problems, not hypocalcaemia.

Click to reveal answer

Q7 SU22.5 1 pt

Which statement about the applied anatomy of the parathyroid glands is correct?

A There are usually two glands lying anterior to the thyroid, supplied by the superior thyroid artery
B There are usually four glands on the posterior surface of the thyroid lobes, supplied mainly by the inferior thyroid artery; the superior pair are derived from the fourth and the inferior pair from the third pharyngeal pouch
C All parathyroid glands derive from the first pharyngeal pouch
D The inferior glands are constant in position while the superior glands are highly variable
E The parathyroids have no blood supply from the inferior thyroid artery

Correct. There are usually four parathyroids on the posterior thyroid, supplied chiefly by the inferior thyroid artery; the superior pair arise from the fourth and the inferior pair from the third pharyngeal pouch (the inferior pair being more variable in position).

Four parathyroids; inferior thyroid artery supply; superior=4th pouch (constant), inferior=3rd pouch (variable).

Four glands, posterior thyroid surface, inferior thyroid artery supply; superior pair from 4th pouch (constant), inferior pair from 3rd pouch (variable, may descend with the thymus).

Click to reveal answer

Q8 SU22.6 1 pt

A patient with primary hyperparathyroidism is to undergo surgery. Which principle correctly describes the sequence of diagnosis and localisation?

A Request a sestamibi scan first to find the adenoma, then confirm the biochemistry
B Confirm the diagnosis biochemically (raised calcium with inappropriately raised PTH) first, and only then localise the adenoma with imaging such as sestamibi/ultrasound
C Imaging alone is sufficient to both diagnose and plan surgery
D Neither biochemistry nor imaging is needed before parathyroidectomy
E A normal PTH with high calcium confirms primary hyperparathyroidism

Correct. Diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism biochemically (high calcium with inappropriately raised PTH) before localising the adenoma; a scan never makes the diagnosis and surgery is not planned on imaging alone.

Biochemistry confirms primary HPT; imaging only localises. Never plan surgery on imaging alone.

Diagnose the parathyroid before you image it: biochemistry (high Ca + inappropriate PTH) first, then localisation. A normal/suppressed PTH with high calcium points elsewhere.

Click to reveal answer